IBPS PAPERS -Allahabad Bank Exam Sample Paper

IBPS PAPERS -Allahabad Bank Exam Sample Paper
General Awareness
1. India test-fired Agni III on—
(A) May 15, 2008
(B) May 17, 2008
(C) May 20, 2008
(D) May 7, 2008
2. Which one of the following countries is not included in the elite club which India joined after its successful test firing of Agni III—(A) Russia
(B) U.S.A.
(C) U.K.
(D) France
3. M. Natrajan is—
(A) Scientific Advisor to the Defence Minister
(B) Chief Controller and Programme Director of Agni Missile System
(C) Scientific Advisor to the Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
4. Currently which one of the following organizations is celebrating its golden jubilee (year) ?(A) ISRO
5. India and Malaysia held their joint naval exercise at—
(A) Andman island
(B) Nicobar island
(C) Lumut
(D) Kualalampur
6. SERB stands for—
(A) Social Enlightenment and Research Board
(B) Scientific And Engineering Research Board
(C) Scientists’ and Engineers’ Research Board
(D) Science and Engineering Research Board
7. CEP (Circular Error Probability) is associated with—
(A) Prithvi II
(B) Chandryan I
(C) Narco Analysis test conducted on Aarushis’ alleged murderer
(D) The finalization of Indo-US Nuclear deal
8. The country which recently announced to have its own version of Star Wars—
(A) France
(B) Japan
(C) China
(D) North Korea
9. The Indian state which, in May 2008, launched Food Security Scheme—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Jammu & Kashmir
10. The most coveted award at the 61st Cannes Film Festival was received by—
(A) ‘Hunger’
(B) Line of Passage
(C) ‘The Class’
(D) Three Monkeys
11. The Winner of the Scripps National Spelling Bee Contest is—
(A) Ravi Kumar
(B) Sameer Mishra
(C) Kuljit Singh
(D) None of these
12. ‘Travelling Through Conflict’ is a book written by—
(A) Hamid Ansari
(B) Cherie Blair
(C) Balraj Krishna
(D) Salman Rushdie
13. According to the Global Peace Index released in May 2008, the most peaceful country on the earth is—
(A) New Zealand
(B) Norway
(C) Denmark
(D) Iceland
14. Which of the following was recently granted Navratna status to ?
(D) All the above
15. In terms of billionnaire population. Mumbai ranks…… at world level ?
(A) Sixth
(B) Fifth
(C) Fourth
(D) Seventh
16. According to a report, the number of Indians who have a problem of loud snoring during sleep is—
(A) 35 million
(B) 36 million
(C) 40 million
(D) 45 million
17. The government has planned to establish ………… universities of global standards across the country ?(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 20
(D) 16
18. The government has increased Minimum Support Price of—
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Cane
(D) None of these
19. India recently refused to accept the offer of funds/loans from World Bank for— (A) Disaster management
(B) North-East projects
(C) Tiger protection
(D) None of the above
20. Yves Saint Laurent recently died. He was a—
(A) U.S.A. film director
(B) First man to go to Mars mission
(C) Renowned fashion designer
(D) An internationally renowned financial expert
Answers1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20 (C)

RRB Kolkata Commercial Apprentice Exam 2009

RRB Kolkata Commercial Apprentice Exam 2009
 RRB Kolkata Commercial Apprentice Exam 2009

(Held on 7th june 2009)
Directions—(Q. 1-5)
Facing towards centre, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle.
F is third from B’s right which is third from H’s right.
A is third from H’s left C is fourth from A’s left
E is third from D’s right, Which is not A’s neighbour.
1. In which of the following pairs, second one is immediately right to the first one ?
(B) GB
(D) None of these
2. Who is second to the D’s left?
(D) Data insufficient
3. Who is third to the G’s left?
4.Who is fourth to the C’s left?
(D) Data insufficient
5. What is the place of ‘B’ with reference to D ?
(I) Fourth-Right
(A) Only I
(B) Only I and II
(C) Only II
(D) Only Ill and IV
English language
Directions—(Q 6-8) Which of the following is correctly spelt?
(B) Apologise
(D) Apollogise
(A) Destinguishably
(B) Distenguishably
(C) Distinguishably
(D) Disifinguishably
(A) Assignment
(B) Asignment
(C) Assignmant
(D) Acinement
Directions—(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the one which best expresses the same sentence in lndirect/Direct Speech
9. I don’t know the way. Do you ? he asked—
(A) He asked me if I knew the way which he didn’t.
(B) He said that he didn’t know the way and asked me I did.
(C) He told that he was not knowing the way, but wondered if knew.
(D) He said that he didn’t know the way and did I know it.
10. Animals which feed on grass are called —
(A) Cannibals
(B) Omnivorous
(C) Herbivorous
(D) Carnivorous
Directions—(Q. 11—15) Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given capital.
(B) End
(D) Conclusion
(A) Express
(B) Reveal
(D) Blackmail
(A) Suspicion
(B) Promise
(C) Suggestion
(D) Blackmail
(A) Entry
(B) Permission
(C) Nearness
(D) Exit
(A) Serious
(B) Eager
(C) Worried
(D) Forced
16. 1 kg mass has a potential energy of 1 joule relative to the ground when it is at a height of?
(A) 0.102 m
(B) 1 m
(D) 32m
17. A particle moves in a circle of radius r. In half the period of revolution, its displacement ,distance covered are—
(A) 2r,?r
(B) r?2, ?r
(C) 2?,?r
18. A fort has provisions for 80 days. If after 15 days 500 men strengthen them and the food lasts 40 days thereafter, how many men were there in the fort?
(8) 4,000
(D) 10,000
19. The ratio of marks obtained by Vinod and Vasu is 6: 5. If the combined average of their percentage is 68.75 and their sum of the marks is 275, the total marks for which exam was conducted
(A) 150
(B) 200
(C) 400
(D) 500
20. A zookeeper counted the heads of the animals in a zoo and found it to be 80. When he counted the legs of the animals he found it to be 260. If the zoo had either pigeons or horses, how many horses were there in the zoo?
(B) 30
(D) 60
21. A Railway halt ticket costs half the full fare and the reservation charge is the same on half ticket on full ticket. One reserved first class ticket from Chennai to Trivandrum costs Rs, 216 and one full reserved and one-half reserved first class tickets cost As. 327. What is the basic first class full fare and what is the reservation charge?
(A) Rs 105 and Rs.6
(B) As. 216 and Rs. 12
(C) Rs. 210 and Rs. 12
(D) Rs 210and Rs.6
22. If each child is given 10 sweets, there are 3 sweets left over. But if each is given 11, then the number of sweet is 4 less. Find the number of sweets—
(B) 73
(D) 57
23. The product of the digits of a two digit number is 24. If its unit’s exceeds twice its ten’s digit by 2, find the number?
(A) 46
(B) 64
(C) 38
(D) 21
24. The number of triangles possible in a regular octagon is?
(B) 120
(D) 28
25. A stairway 10 ft high is such that each step accounts for half a foot upward and one foot forward. What distance will an ant travel if it starts from ground level to reach the lop of the stairway?
(A)30 ft.
(B) 33ft.
(C)10 ft.
(D) 29ft.
26. If the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon measures up to 1440 degrees, how many sides does the polygon have?
(B) 8
(D) 9
27. If the diagonal and the area of a rectangle are 25 m and 168 vu what is the length of the rectangle?
(B) 31m
(D) 24m
28. A force F is applied on a square plate of side L. If the percentage error in the determination of L is 2% and that of F is 4%, the maximum permissible error in
pressure is?
(B) 4%
(D) 8%
29. Two forces, equal in magnitude, have a resultant with its magnitude equal to either. The angle between them is?
(B) 60°
(D) 120°
30. A trader increases the cost of an article by 10% and gives 5% discount. Find his profit or loss
(A) 10% profit
(B) 10% loss
(C) 4.5% loss
(D) 4.5% profit
31. A student secured 210 marks in an examination and failed by 21 marks. If the pass marks are 33%
find the maximum marks—
(B) 610
(D) 720
32. If simple interest on Rs. 600 for 4 years and on Rs. 600 for 2 years, combined together is Rs. 180, find the rate of interest?
(A) 5.5%
(B) 5%
(C) 6%
(D) 4%
33. A group of labour wished to complete the work in 25 days. But 10 labourers did not turn-up and the work got completed in 35 days.
Find the approximate number of labourers in the beginning?
(B) 25
(D) 20
34. A clock shows 6 hrs. 40 min. What time will the plane mirror, kept before it, show?
(A) 3:20 hrs.
(B) 6:20 hrs.
(C) 4:20 hrs
(D) 9:20 hrs
35. In a party 15 people shake their hands with each other. How many times did the hand-shake take place?
(A) 165
(B) 120
(C) 135
(D) 105
36. A is father of B, who is sister of C, but C is neither B’s sister, nor A’s daughter. D is mother of B and C, how C is related to D?
(A) Nephew
(B) Son
(D) Daughter
37. The selling price of a pen is Rs.16. If the shopkeeper bears the per cent loss equal to its cost price find out its cost price?
(A)Rs. 20
(B) Rs. 25
(D) Rs.30
38. A train 160 m long crosses 160 m long platform in 16 seconds.The speed of the train is?
(A)72 km/h
(B) 75 km/h
(C)45 km/h
(D) 60 km/h
39. In a class of 30 students and 2 teachers, the students got sweets worth 20% of the total number of students and teacher got sweets worth 30% of the total number of students.
Find the total quantity of the sweets
(B) 178
(D) None of these
40. A man takes 8 minutes to type a page. If 1710 pages are to be typed in the afternoon between 1 O’clock to 2 O’ clock, how many men are required ?
(B) 221
(D) None of these
1:D 2:A 3:B 4:A 5:B 6:B
7:C 8:A 9:B 10:C 11:A 12:B
13:B 14:A 15:B 16:A 17:A 18:B
19:B 20:C 21:D 22::B 23:C 24:C
25:D 26:A 27:D 28:D 29:D 30:D
31:A 32:B 33:C 34:A 35:D 36:B
37:A 38:A 39:D 40:D 228 persons

Computer General Awareness For Bank PO

Computer General Awareness For Bank PO

1. In a survey of more than 500 companies and government agencies, ____________ percent detected computer security breaches.
A. 20
B. 75
C. 85
D. 99
Answer: C
2. The survey showed that these businesses lost more than ____________ due to security breaches.
A. $100,000 each
B. $377 million
C. five employees each
D. $1 million
Answer: B
3. The typical computer criminal is a(n):
A. young hacker.
B. trusted employee with no criminal record.
C. trusted employee with a long, but unknown criminal record.
D. overseas young cracker.
Answer: B
4. The majority of computer crimes are committed by:
A. hackers.
B. insiders.
C. overseas criminals.
D. young teenage computer geniuses.
Answer: B
5. The common name for the crime of stealing passwords is:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
Answer: C Reference: Theft by Computer
6. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime of:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
Answer: B
7. Malicious software is known as:
A. badware.
B. malware.
C. maliciousware.
D. illegalware.
Answer: B
8. A program that performs a useful task while simultaneously allowing destructive acts is a:
A. worm.
B. Trojan horse.
C. virus.
D. macro virus.
Answer: B Moderate
9. An intentionally disruptive program that spreads from program to program or from disk to disk is known as a:
A. Trojan horse.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. time-related bomb sequence.
Answer: B
10. In 1999, the Melissa virus was a widely publicized:
A. e-mail virus.
B. macro virus.
C. Trojan horse.
D. Time bomb.
Answer: A
11. What type of virus uses computer hosts to reproduce itself?
A. Time bomb
B. Worm
C. Melissa virus
D. Macro virus
Answer: B
12. The thing that eventually terminates a worm virus is a lack of:
A. memory or disk space.
B. time.
C. CD drive space.
Answer: A
13. When a logic bomb is activated by a time-related event, it is known as a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C
14. A logic bomb that was created to erupt on Michelangelo’s birthday is an example of a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C
15. What is the name of an application program that gathers user information and sends it to someone through the Internet?
A. A virus
B. Spybot
C. Logic bomb
D. Security patch
Answer: B
16. Standardization of Microsoft programs and the Windows operating system has made the spread of viruses:
A. more complicated.
B. more difficult.
C. easier.
D. slower.
Answer: C
17. HTML viruses infect:
A. your computer.
B. a Web page in the HTML code.
C. both a Web page and the computer that is viewing it.
D. No
18. Software programs that close potential security breaches in an operating system are known as:
A. security breach fixes.
B. refresh patches.
C. security repairs.
D. security patches.
Answer: D
19. When customers of a Web site are unable to access it due to a bombardment of fake traffic, it is known as:
A. a virus.
B. a Trojan horse.
C. cracking.
D. a denial of service attack.
Answer: D
20. ___________ is the measurement of things such as fingerprints and retinal scans used for security access.
A. Biometrics
B. Biomeasurement
C. Computer security
D. Smart weapon machinery
Answer: A
21. What is the most common tool used to restrict access to a computer system?
A. User logins
B. Passwords
C. Computer keys
D. Access-control software
Answer: B
22. The most common passwords in the U.S. or Britain include all EXCEPT:
A. love.
B. Fred.
C. God.
D. 123.
Answer: D
23. Hardware or software designed to guard against unauthorized access to a computer network is known as a(n):
A. hacker-proof program.
B. firewall.
C. hacker-resistant server.
D. encryption safe wall.
Answer: B
24. The scrambling of code is known as:
A. encryption.
B. a firewall.
C. scrambling.
D. password-proofing.
Answer: A
25. If you want to secure a message, use a(n):
A. cryptology source.
B. encryption key.
C. encryption software package.
D. cryptosystem.
Answer: D Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography
26. To prevent the loss of data during power failures, use a(n):
A. encryption program.
B. surge protector.
C. firewall.
Answer: D
27. A(n) ____________ can shield electronic equipment from power spikes.
A. encryption program
B. surge protector
C. firewall
Answer: B
28. All of these are suggestions for safe computing EXCEPT:
A. don’t borrow disks from other people.
B. open all e-mail messages but open them slowly.
C. download shareware and freeware with caution.
D. disinfect your system.
Answer: B
29. Freeware ___________ encrypts data.
A. encryption
B. firewall software
D. private and public keys
Answer: C
30. ____________ is defined as any crime completed through the use of computer technology.
A. Computer forensics
B. Computer crime
C. Hacking
D. Cracking
Answer: B
31. Most computer systems rely solely on ___________ for authentication.
A. logins
B. passwords
C. encryption
D. lock and key
Answer: B
32. Creating strong computer security to prevent computer crime usually simultaneously helps protect :
A. privacy rights.
B. personal ethics.
C. the number of cookies downloaded to your personal computer.
D. personal space.
Answer: A
33. Over ___________ was spent by businesses and government to repair problems in regard to Y2K.
A. 20 million dollars
B. 100 million dollars
C. 1 billion dollars
D. 100 billion dollars
Answer: D
34. What is a complex system that takes on nearly complete responsibility for a task eliminating the need for people, verification, or decision making?
A. Autonomous system
B. Missile defense auto-system
C. Smart weapon
D. Independent system
Answer: D
35. Security procedures can:
A. will eliminate all computer security risk.
B. reduce but not eliminate risks.
C. are prohibitively expensive.
D. are inaccessible for the average home user.
Answer: B
Fill in the Blank:
36. The field of computer ____________ uses special software to scan hard drives of potential criminal suspects.
Answer: forensics Reference: Online Outlaws: Computer Crime Difficulty: Challenging
37. Computer ____________ often goes unreported because businesses fear negative publicity.
Answer: crime
38. ____________ connections are the most frequent point of attack for Internet commerce.
Answer: Internet
39. ____________ is the most common form of computer crime.
Answer: Theft
40. A survey by eMarketer.com found that ____________ are the most often cited online fraud cases.
Answer: online auctions Reference: Identity Theft
41. Theft of computers is most common for PDAs and ____________ computers.
Answer: notebook
42. When you use a disk in several different computers within the same day, you are taking the chance of contracting a(n) ____________.
Answer: virus Reference: Viruses Difficulty: Easy
43. A(n) ____________ attaches itself to documents that contain embedded programs that automate tasks.
Answer: macro virus
44. Both viruses and ____________ use computer hosts to replicate.
Answer: worms
45. ____________ programs search for and eliminate viruses.
Answer: Antivirus
46. A security patch is a software program that closes possible security breaches in the operating system. The cost to the consumer is ____________.
Answer: nothing or free
47. ____________ was once the word used for malicious computer wizardry.
Answer: Hackers or hacking
48. ____________ refers to electronic trespassing or criminal hacking.
Answer: Cracking
49. DoS stands for ___________.
Answer: denial of service
50. DDoS stands for ___________.
Answer: distributed denial of service
51. ____________ hijack Web pages and redirect users to other sites.
Answer: Webjackers
52. ___________ software monitors and records computer transactions.
Answer: Audit-control
53. Each individual who uses a public key cryptosystem has ___________ keys.
Answer: two Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography
54. PGP stands for ___________.
Answer: Pretty Good Privacy
55. Most operating systems, including Windows XP, assign each user a unique ___________.
Answer: user identifier or user ID
56. It should now be common knowledge that users should not open ___________ from e-mail recipients that the user does not know.
Answer: attachments
57. Match the acts and centers with their purposes:
I. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act A. created by Attorney General Janet Reno in 1998
II. USA Patriot Act B. defines what kinds of communications are legal online
III. Digital Millennium Copyright Act C. created in 2001 as a response to the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001
IV. Telecommunications Act of 1996 D. provides instant information on crimes and criminals
V. Communications Decency Act E. declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court
VI. National Infrastructure Protection Center F. created as a result of the first headline-making worm
VII. National Crime Information Center G. used to arrest a student for writing to crack an Adobe product
Answers: F, C, G, B, E, A, D
58. Match the following rules of thumb about safe computing with the proper descriptions:
I. share with care A. be aware of e-mail from what appear to be legitimate companies
II. handle e-mail carefully B. don’t choose a dictionary word
III. disinfect regularly C. keep your disks in your own computer
IV. take your password seriously D. copy, copy, copy
V. if it’s important, back it up E. encrypt
VI. sensitive info over the Internet? F. use antivirus software
Answers: C, A, F, B, D, E

Bank PO Numerical Ability Sample Paper

Bank PO Numerical Ability Sample Paper

1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 28 minutes
(d) 34 minutes
2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096
(b) 8192
(c) 512
(d) 1024
3. Find the number missing at question mark:
    10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100
(b) 103
(c) 78
(d) 128
4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and     reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes
5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14.  What is the figure?
    (a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6
6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
    (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18
7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
    (a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45
8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
    (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150
9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………
    (a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14
10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
     (a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17
11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….
     (a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400
12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
     (a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210
13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
     (a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50
14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
     (a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds
15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….
     (a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds
16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
     (a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40
17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
     (a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6
18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
     (a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050
19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
     (a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m
20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
     (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2
21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..
     (a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3
     (c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution
22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
     (a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2
23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
     (a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%
24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
     (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5
25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
     (a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400
26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
     (a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes
     (c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes
27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
     (a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes
28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
     (a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300
29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
    (a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days
30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
     (a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27
31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
     (a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %
32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
     (a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2
33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
     (a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0
34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
     (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450
35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
     (a) Interior of the triangle
     (b) Midpoint of the diameter
     (c) Exterior of the triangle
     (d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle
36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
     (a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180
37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
     (a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre
38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?
     (a) 3r (b) 4r (c) √5r (d) √3r
39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
     (a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6
40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3√2, 6, 6√2 ?
     (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) √2 (d) √3
41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
     (a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45
42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
     (a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr
43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
     (a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32
44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
     (a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm
45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……
     (a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57
46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
     (a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30
47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
     (a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21
48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
     (a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750
49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
     (a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510
50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
     (a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31
1 A 11 B 21 C 31 D 41 A
2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 A
3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 B
4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D 44 C
5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A
6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C
7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B 47 B
8 D 18 A 28 D 38 C 48 D
9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 B
10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 B


1. Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award 2007 ?
a) Priya Ranjan Das Munshi
b) Mani Shankar Aiyyar
c) P.Chidambaram
d) Sushama Swaraj
ANS : a
2. Fernando Lugo’s name was in news recently as he has taken over as the president of
a) Paraguay
b) Sudan
c) Afghanistan
d) Pakistan
ANS : a
3.  ISRO has launched successfully ten satellites through PSLV-C9 on -
A. 15th March,2008
B. 30th March,2008
C. 28th April,2008
D. 4th May,2008
ANS : c
4. The newly constituted National Knowledge Commission is headed by
a) C. Rangarajan
b)Prof. R. S. Sharma
c) Sam Pitroda
d) Ms. Girija Vyas
ANS : c
5. India enacted an important event of Indian National Movement celebrating the seventy- fifth anniversary. Which was it?
a) Quit India Movement
b) Delhi Chalo Movement
c) Civil Disobedience Movement
d) Non – Cooperation Movement
ANS :c
6. Pope Benedict XVI belongs to which country?
a) Italy
b) Germany
c) France
d) Poland
ANS : b
7. The media campaign “ The World Is Waiting” is related to which of the following companies?
a) Lufthansa
b) Qatar Airways
c) Indian Airlines
d) British Airways
ANS : d
8. Who among the following has been elected as President of the International Council of Science Union?
a) E. Sreedharan
b) N. Ram
c) M. G. K. Menon
d) Goverdhan Mehta
ANS : d
9. Which of the following countries launched the smallest combat aircraft in the world?
a) Germany
b) India
c) Russia
d) USA
ANS : b
10. Who among the following British Governor- Generals shifted India’s capital from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911?
a) Lord Louis Mountbatten
b) Lord Canning
c) Lord Hardinge
d) Warren Hastings
ANS : c
11. “Golden Handshake” is the term associated with
a) Share market
b) Retirement benefits
c) Voluntary retirement benefits
d) Smuggling
ANS : c
12. Which of the following is the first surface- to- surface missile in India?
a) Prithvi
b) Trishul
c) Agni
d) Naag
ANS : a
13. Which country will be host 15th SAARC Summit in 2008 ?
a) Maldives
b) Sri Lanka
c) India
d) Pakistan
ANS : b
14. Mist is caused by
a) Dry ice
b) Ice at low temperature
c) Water vapours at low temperature
d) Carbon- monoxide in solid form
ANS : c
15. Who among the following has been chosen the Miss India Universe for the year 2008 ?
a) Parvathy Omanakuttan
b) Simaran Kaur Mundi
c) Amrita Thapar
d) Tanvi Vyas
ANS : b
16. Who among the following was the author of “Rajtarangini”, commonly regarded as the first genuine history of India written by an Indian?
a) Banbhatta
b) Ravikirti
c) Pushpadanta
d) Kalhana
ANS : d
17. Who among the following advocated Scientific Socialism?
a) Robert Owen
b) Proudhon Pierre Joseph
c) Karl Marx
d) Saint Simon Henri Claude
ANS : c
18. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with the Directive Principles of State Policy?
a) 26 to 41
b) 31 to 56
c) 36 to 51
d) 41 to 66
ANS: c
19) Which one of the following travelers is not associated with the description of the glories of Vijayanagar kingdom?
a) Abdur Razzaq
b) Paes
c) Ibn Batutah
d) Nuniz
ANS : c :
Abdur Razzaq- Deva Raya II
Paes- Krishna Deva Raya
Ibn Batutah- Harihara I
Nuziz- Achyut Deva Raya
20. The Chinese pilgrim Fa – Hien visited India during the reign of
a) Kanishka
b) Chandragupta I
c) Chandragupta II
d) Harshavardhana
ANS : c
21. Which of the following is the economic growth percentage projected in the 11th Five Year Plan draft that was approved by the Planning Commission in November 2007?
a) 8%
b) 9%
c) 9.5%
d) 10%
ANS : b
22. The Indian Navy’s only sailing ship, which returned to Kochi after a 10- month voyage around the globe is,
a) INS Vibhuti
b) INS Tarangini
c) INS Prabhat
d) INS Viraat
ANS : b
23) Who among the following is the Director General of International Monetary Fund (IMF) ?
a) Thaksin Shinawatra
b) Liang Guanglie
c) Dominique Strauss Kahn
d) Paul Wolfowitz
ANS : c
24) Who is the author of the book “Super Star India : From Incredible to Unstopable”?
a) Shobha De
b) Hillory Clinton
c) Dalai Lama
d) Imran Khan
ANS : a
25) What does CECA stand for?
a) Community Enabled Cooperative Arrangement
b) Comprehensive Ecological Cooperation Agreement
c) Comprehensive Ecological Cooperation Arrangement
d) Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement
ANS : d
26) John wheeler was associated with -
a) Physics
b) Chemistry
c) Botany
d) History
Ans : a

IBPS RRB Regional Rural Banks Materilas & Papers Download

IBPS RRB Regional Rural Banks Materilas & Papers Download

IBPS RRB Regional Rural Banks Materials Download

IBPS RRB Regional Rural Banks Papers Download
All files above are in PDF Format and will open with any version of Adobe Reader Apart from above Sample Papers, following books can be very useful in your preparation:

    IBPS RRB clerks Reasoning ability and Numerical Aptitude

    IBPS RRB clerks Reasoning ability and Numerical Aptitude

    1. Suresh is taller than Prabhu but shorter than Ram, Prabhu
    is as tall as Neeraj but taller than Nilesh. Which of the
    following statements is definitely true for Neeraj?
    (a) Neeraj is shorter than Nilesh
    (b) Neeraj is the tallest
    (c) Neeraj is the shortest
    (d) Neeraj is taller than Nilesh
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( d ) Neeraj is taller than Nilesh

    2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
    STAINLESS each of which has as many letters between them in
    the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same
    (a) Two
    (b) Three
    (c) Four
    (d) Five
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( e ) None of these

    3. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the
    following sequence?
    (a) RANGEME
    (b) ANGEME
    (c) ANGEMENT
    (d) NGEMEN
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( b ) ANGEME

    4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
    so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to
    that group?
    (a) Baking
    (b) Steaming
    (c) Cooking
    (d) Frying
    (e) Boiling
    Ans: ( c ) Cooking

    5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
    so form a group which is the one that does not belong to
    that group?
    (a) Radish
    (b) Orange
    (c) Pear
    (d) Mango
    (e) Apple
    Ans: ( a ) Radish

    6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
    so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to
    that group?
    (a) Earth
    (b) Moon
    (c) Saturn
    (d) Pluto
    (e) Venus
    Ans: ( b ) Moon

    7. If water is called food, food is called drink, drink is
    called blue, blue is called red, red is called white and
    white is called brown, then what is the colour of ?blood? ?
    (a) Blue
    (b) Red
    (c) Brown
    (d) White
    (e) Drink
    Ans: ( d ) White

    8. In a certain code language, the word ENQUIRY is written
    as YRIUQNE. How will the word REQUIRE be written in the
    code language ?
    (a) QERUERI
    (b) REQUERI
    (c) ERIUQER
    (d) IREUQER
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( c ) ERIUQER

    9. In a certain code language DESERT is written RTSEDE. How
    will the word FAULTS the written in that code language?
    (a) TSULFA
    (b) AFLUST
    (c) LUAFST
    (d) UAFSTL
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( a ) TSULFA

    10. How many meaningful English word can be formed by using
    the second, the fifth, the seventh and the tenth letters of
    the word APPROPRIATION, each only once, but in different
    sequence ?
    (a) One
    (b) Two
    (c) Three
    (d) None of these
    (e) More than three
    Ans: ( a ) One

    Directions (Qs. 11?15) : What will come in place of the
    question mark (?) in the following questions?
    11. 7589 ? ? = 3434
    (a) 3721
    (b) 4155
    (c) 3246
    (d) 11023
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( b ) 4155

    12. 300 + (10)2 x 2 = ?
    (a) 450
    (b) 800
    (c) 500
    (d) 550
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( c ) 500

    13. 12.05 x 5.4 ÷ 0.6 = ?
    (a) 105.55
    (b) 108.45
    (c) 118.45
    (d) 118.55
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( b ) 108.45

    14. 2435 ÷ 24 = 24?
    (a) 2.5
    (b) 3.5
    (c) 2
    (d) 3
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( a ) 2.5

    15. 78 x 14 + 7645 ? ? = 8247
    (a) 580
    (b) 590
    (c) 490
    (d) 480
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( c ) 490

    Directions (Qs. 16?17) :
    I. ?P + Q? means P is the brother of Q
    II. ?P x Q? means P is the mother of Q
    III. ?P ÷ Q? means P is the sister of Q
    IV. ?P ? Q? means Q is the father of P
    16. Which of the following represents ?B is the material
    uncle of C??
    (a) B + A x C
    (b) B x C + A
    (c) B ÷ C + A
    (d) B x A + c
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( a ) B + A x C

    17. Which of the following statements is not necessary to
    answer the above question?
    (a) Only I and II
    (b) Only III
    (c) Only III and IV
    (d) Either II or III
    (e) All are necessary
    Ans: ( c ) Only III and IV

    18. Pointing towards a woman a boy said, ?she is the only
    daughter of my mother?s brother?s only brother-in-law?. How
    the woman is related to the boy?
    (a) Mother
    (b) Aunt
    (c) Sister-in-law
    (d) Sister
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( d ) Sister

    19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
    and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not
    belong to that group?
    (a) 63
    (b) 64
    (c) 39
    (d) 48
    (e) 79
    Ans: ( e ) 79

    20. Ina certain code language DOWNBEAT is written as
    TABEWNDO. How will the word PROSPECT be written in that
    code language?
    (a) RPSOEPTC
    (b) TCPEOSPR
    (c) ORPSPTCE
    (d) TCPREPOS
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( b ) TCPEOSPR

    Directions (Qs. 21?26) : What will come in place of the
    question mark (?) in the following questions?
    21. 37.5 ÷ (27)1.5 x 92 = 3?
    (a) 5
    (b) 4.5
    (c) 7
    (d) 6.5
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( c ) 7

    22. 28% of 450 + 45% of 280 = ?
    (a) 126
    (b) 252
    (c) 324
    (d) 212
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( b ) 252

    23. 1027.05 ? 314.005 + 112.25 = ?
    (a) 825.395
    (b) 825.095
    (c) 825.305
    (d) 825.295
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( d ) 825.295

    24. (103.7 x 101.3)2 = 10?
    (a) 6
    (b) 7
    (c) 10
    (d) 3
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( c ) 10

    25. 40.83 x 1.02 x 1.2 = ?
    (a) 49.97592
    (b) 41.64660
    (c) 58.7952
    (d) 42.479532
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( a ) 49.97592

    26. 3978 + 112 x 2 = ? ÷ 2
    (a) 8180
    (b) 2101
    (c) 4090
    (d) 8404
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( d ) 8404

    27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
    and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not
    belong to that group?
    (a) 21
    (b) 35
    (c) 49
    (d) 63
    (e) 56
    Ans: ( c ) 49

    28. P is heavier than Q but lighter than R. Q is heavier
    than T. S is heavier than P but lighter than V. Who among
    them is the lightest?
    (a) V
    (b) S
    (c) T
    (d) R
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( c ) T

    29. In a certain code language TRANSPORT is written as
    RTASNPORT. How will the word GATEHOUSE be written in that
    code language ?
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( c ) AGTHEOUSE

    30. In a certain code language ?si re ga? MEANS ?Shyam is
    smart? and ?pa si ga? means? Animesh is smart?. What is the
    code for ?smart? in that code language?
    (a) si
    (b) re
    (c) ga
    (d) pa
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( e ) None of these

    Directions (Qs. 31?34) : What will come in place of the
    question-mark (?) in the following questions ?
    31. 12.05 x 5.4 ÷ 0.3 = ?
    (a) 108.55
    (b) 216.90
    (c) 118.45
    (d) 118.55
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( b ) 216.90

    32. 99 ÷ 11 + 7 x 16 = (?)2
    (a) 11
    (b) 121
    (c) 12
    (d) 144
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( a ) 11

    33. 8400 ÷ 120 x 15 + 150 = ?
    (a) 1050
    (b) 1200
    (c) 1100
    (d) 1514
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( b ) 1200

    34. 45% of 1500 + 35% of 1700 = ?% of 3175
    (a) 40
    (b) 55
    (c) 45
    (d) 35
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( a ) 40

    Directions (Qs. 35?39) : Study the following information
    carefully and answer the questions given below:
    The number 0 to 9 are coded in the following manner
    considering the exception given below:

    3 6 9 7 0 2 8 1 5 4
    H P V S G D J K M R
    Exception 1: If a number starts and ends with non-zero odd
    number then the first and the last digits should be coded as
    X and Z.
    Exception 2: If a number starts and ends with non-zero even
    number then the first and the last digits should be coded as
    A and B respectively.
    35. What is the code for 5 2 1 8 6 3 ?
    (a) MDKJPH
    (b) ZDKJPX
    (c) XDKJPZ
    (d) ADKJPB
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( c ) XDKJPZ

    36. What is the code for 492310 ?
    (a) RVDHKG
    (b) AVDHKB
    (c) VRDKHG
    (d) BVDHKA
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( a ) RVDHKG

    37. Which of the following numbers is represented by ASGHKB?
    I. 670312 II. 470313 III. 270318
    (a) Only I and III
    (b) Only I and II
    (c) Only Ii and III
    (d) Only I
    (e) Only III
    Ans: ( a ) Only I and III

    38. What is the code for 3186452 ?
    (a) HKJDMRP
    (b) KHPJMRD
    (c) DMRPHKJ
    (d) HKJPRMD
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( d ) HKJPRMD

    39. Which of the following numbers is represented by DPJRSV ?
    (a) 628794
    (b) 268479
    (c) 246793
    (d) 168359
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( b ) 268479

    40. Animesh and Anand together got a profit of Rs. 9,600 and
    they distributed between themselves in the ratio of 5 : 7.
    What is the share of Animesh?
    (a) Rs. 4,000
    (b) Rs. 5,600
    (c) Rs. 4,800
    (d) Rs. 5,200
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( a ) Rs. 4,000

    41. A man bought some fruits at the rate of 16 for Rs. 24
    and sold them at the rate of 8 for Rs. 18. What is the
    profit per cent?
    (a) 50%
    (b) 60%
    (c) 40%
    (d) 25%
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( a ) 50%

    42. A cow is tethered in the middle of a field with a 14
    feet long rope. If the cow grazes 100 sq feet per day
    approximately. What time will be taken by the cow to graze
    the grazeable area of the field?
    (a) 2 days
    (b) 18 days
    (c) 24 days
    (d) 6 days
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( d ) 6 days

    43. 7/8 of 3/7 of a number is equal to 25% of 45% of
    another number. What is the ratio of the first and the
    second numbers respectively?
    (a) 3 : 7
    (b) 9: 10
    (c) 3 : 10
    (d) 3 : 2
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( c ) 3 : 10

    44. Mr. Rahul spends 30% of his monthly salary on domestic
    expenses. He spends respectively 20% and 10% of the
    remaining salary on education of children and conveyance.
    Of the remaining amounts now he spends respectively 20% and
    30% on entertainment and maintenance of house. He saves Rs.
    5512.50. what is the monthly salary of Mr. Rahul?
    (a) Rs. 22,500
    (b) Rs. 20,000
    (c) Rs. 25,000
    (d) Rs. 24,500
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( a ) Rs. 22,500

    45. The ratio of the present ages of Suman and Renu is 5 : 7
    respectively. Four years hence the ratio will become 3 : 4
    respectively. What is the present age of Renu in years?
    (a) 28
    (b) 24
    (c) 20
    (d) 21
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( a ) 28

    46. If instead of multiplying a number by 7 the number was
    divided by 7. What should be the percentage error?
    (a) 100%
    (b) 96.8%
    (c) 92.70%
    (d) 97.9%
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( d ) 97.9%

    47. A car covers a certain distance taking 7 hours in
    forward journey. During the return journey, speed was
    increased by 12 kmph and it takes 5 hours. What is total
    distance covered?
    (a) 210 km
    (b) 70 km
    (c) 440 km
    (d) 220 km
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( a ) 210 km

    48. The LCM of two numbers is 2079 and their HCF is 27. If
    one of the numbers is 189, find the other number.
    (a) 248
    (b) 128
    (c) 297
    (d) 336
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( c ) 297

    49. The average between a two digit number and the number
    obtained by interchanging the digits is 9. What is the
    difference between the two digits of the number?
    (a) 8
    (b) 2
    (c) 5
    (d) Cannot be determined
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( d ) Cannot be determined

    50. A circle and a rectangle have the same perimeter. The
    sides of the rectangle are 18 cm and 26 cm. What will be
    the area of the circle?
    (a) 88 cm2
    (b) 1250 cm2
    (c) 154 cm2
    (d) 128 cm2
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( e ) None of these

    51. The difference between a number and its three-fifth is
    50. What is the number?
    (a) 75
    (b) 100
    (c) 125
    (d) 80
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( c ) 125

    52. Some persons decide to raise Rs. 3 lakhs by equal
    contribution from each of them. If they contributed Rs. 50
    extra each, the contribution increased to Rs. 3.25 lakhs.
    How many persons were there ?
    (a) 400
    (b) 500
    (c) 600
    (d) 700
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( b ) 500

    53. A sample of milk contains 5% water. What quantity of
    pure milk should be added to 10 litres of milk to reduce the
    water content to 2%?
    (a) 5 litres
    (b) 7 litres
    (c) 15 litres
    (d) 12 litres
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( c ) 15 litres

    54. The difference between the compound interest and the
    simple interest on a certain sum of money at 5% per annum
    for 2 years is Rs. 1.50. Find the sum.
    (a) Rs. 800
    (b) Rs. 1200
    (c) Rs. 400
    (d) Rs. 600
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( d ) Rs. 600

    55. A, B and C contract a work for Rs. 550. Together A and
    B are supposed to do 7/11th of the work. How much does C get?
    (a) Rs. 270
    (b) Rs. 200
    (c) Rs. 310
    (d) Rs. 175
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( b ) Rs. 200

    Directions (Qs. 56?60) : Study the following information
    carefully and answer the questions given below:
    There is a five storey building including the ground floor
    and each floor has only one flat. All these flats have been
    occupied by the five Bank Probationary Officers. Each
    officer owns a different car. The cars are : Indica, Ikon,
    Indigo, Elentra and Santro. The five officers?A, B, X, Y
    and Z ? are employed in the different banks, viz., State
    Bank of India (SBI), Punjab National Bank (PNB), UCO Bank,
    ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank but not necessarily in the same
    order. Mr. X works in HDFC Bank and lives on the ground
    floor. The officer who lives on fourth (top) floor does not
    own Elentra or Santro. Mr. B works in PNB and owns Elentra
    car. The officer who works in UCO Bank and lives on second
    floor owns Indica car. Mr. Y lives on third floor and owns
    Indigo. Mr. Z works in ICICI Bank and Mr. Y works in State
    Bank of India.
    56. Who among the following does own Santro car ?
    (a) A
    (b) B
    (c) X
    (d) Cannot be determined
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( c ) X

    57. Who lives on the second floor ?
    (a) X
    (b) Y
    (c) Z
    (d) A
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( d ) A

    58. On which floor does B live ?
    (a) First
    (b) Second
    (c) Fourth
    (d) Cannot be determined
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( a ) First

    59. Who among the following owns Indica car ?
    (a) X
    (b) A
    (c) Y
    (d) B
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( b ) A

    60. Which of the following combinations of the officer and
    car is correct ?
    (a) Mr. X : Elentra
    (b) Mr. Y : Ikon
    (c) Mr. A : Santro
    (d) Mr. Z : Ikon
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( d ) Mr. Z : Ikon

    61. For which of the following values of x the inequality x
    (x + 3) < 10 is satisfied ? (a) X > 2, x < -5 (b) -3 < x < 0 (c) -2 < x < 5 (d) X < -2, x > 5
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( b ) -3 < x < 0

    62. There is a leak in the bottom of a cistern. When the
    cistern is thoroughly repaired, it would be filled in 3 ½
    hours. It now takes half an hour longer. If the cistern is
    full, how long will the leak take to empty the cistern?
    (a) 24 hours
    (b) 28 hours
    (c) 21 hours
    (d) 27 hours
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( a ) 24 hours

    63. If the diagonals of a rhombus are 8 cm and 10 cm
    respectively what will be the area of the rhombus?
    (a) 35 sq cm
    (b) 40 sq cm
    (c) 30 sq cm
    (d) 20 sq cm
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( b ) 40 sq cm

    64. Some toys were distributed equally among 18 children in
    such a way that the number of toys each child gets is equal
    to the total number of children and after distribution 6
    toys are left out. What was the total number of toys?
    (a) 324
    (b) 330
    (c) 336
    (d) 320
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( b ) 330

    65. A shopkeeper allows 10% discount on the price of an
    article and sells it for Rs. 7,600. What is the market
    price of the article ?
    (a) Rs. 8,250
    (b) Rs. 8,500
    (c) Rs. 8,540
    (d) Rs. 8,415
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( e ) None of these

    Directions (Qs. 66?70) : Below in each question five words
    are given. Which of them will come in the middle place if
    all of them are arranged alphabetically? Serial number of
    that word is the answer.

    66. (a) Encounter
    (b) Enormous
    (c) Engineer
    (d) Enlarge
    (e) Encroach
    Ans: ( c ) Engineer

    67. (a) Network
    (b) Nepotism
    (c) Neutral
    (d) Neighbour
    (e) Nervous
    Ans: ( e ) Nervous

    68. (a) Granular
    (b) Gratuity
    (c) Gravitate
    (d) Greatness
    (e) Grateful
    Ans: ( b ) Gratuity

    69. (a) Residential
    (b) Reputation
    (c) Resistant
    (d) Residence
    (e) Reschedule
    Ans: ( d ) Residence

    70. (a) Bracelet
    (b) Boutique
    (c) Bourgeois
    (d) Brackish
    (e) Bramble
    Ans: ( a ) Bracelet

    Directions (Qs. 71?75) : the number group in each question
    is to be codified in the following codes :

    Number 3 8 7 0 1 9 6 4 2 5
    Codes N L D M H B V R G P
    You have to find out which of the answers (A), (B), (C) and
    (D) has the correct coded form of the given number group.
    If none of the coded form is correct, mark (E) as the answer.
    71. 6182734
    (a) HBGPLDM
    (b) VBLGRNH
    (c) VHLGDNR
    (d) BHNDGHR
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( c ) VHLGDNR

    72. 349805
    (a) NRBLMP
    (b) BRNLPM
    (c) LRDGMP
    (d) PMLHBR
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( a ) NRBLMP

    73. 57920642
    (a) DPBGMVRH
    (b) PDBRLNGH
    (c) MVRGHLDP
    (d) PDBGMVRG
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( d ) PDBGMVRG

    74. 7561024
    (a) DPVGMRH
    (b) DPVHMGR
    (c) HMRLDVP
    (d) VHDPGRL
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( b ) DPVHMGR

    75. 48236017
    (a) RLGDLMHV
    (b) BNDPGMRH
    (c) VHMGDMRL
    (d) HNPGBMHV
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( e ) None of these

    Directions (Qs. 76?80) : the news item given in each
    question below is to be classified into one of the following
    five areas.
    (a) Political and Social, (b) sports and Culture, (c)
    Science and Health
    (d) Economics and Commerce, and (e) Miscellaneous
    76. International Film Festival of India was organized in
    Chennai recently.
    Ans: ( b ) sports and Culture

    77. India will host 2010 Commonwealth Games
    Ans: ( b ) sports and Culture

    78. Sustained efforts are needed to secure the release of
    Ans: ( e ) Miscellaneous

    79. India and Japan are considering to have dialogue on
    defence issue.
    Ans: ( a ) Political and Social

    80. New vaccine MMR has been developed for children.
    Ans: ( c ) Science and Health

    Directions (Qs. 81?90) : In the following passage there are
    blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are
    printed below the passage and against each, five words are
    suggested, one of which fills the blank appropriately. Find
    out the appropriate word in each case.
    Fourteen centuries ago when the world was much younger,
    the ruler of all India, Rajah Balhait, was ??..(151) about
    his people. A new game of dice, called hard, had ???(152)
    the imagination of his subjects, teaching them that chance
    alone-a-roll of the dice guided the ???(153) of men. All
    who played this game of fortune lost their ???(155) in the
    virtues of courage, prudence, wisdom and hope. It bred a
    fatalism that was ???(155) the spirit of the kingdom.
    Raja Balhait commissioned Sissa, an intelligent courter at
    his court to find an answer to this ???(156) After much
    ???(157) the clever Sissa invented another game.
    Chaturanga, the exact ???(158) of hard, in which the four
    elements of the Indian army were the key pleces. In the
    game these pieces-chariots, horses, elephants and foot
    soldiers-joined with a royal counselor to defend their king
    and defeat the enemy. Forceful ???(159) was demanded of the
    players?not luck. Chaturanga soon became more popular than
    hard, and the ???(160) to the Kingdom was over.

    81. (a) concerned
    (b) confident
    (c) ignorant
    (d) indifferent
    (e) partisan
    Ans: ( a ) concerned

    82. (a) propelled
    (b) enshrined
    (c) captured
    (d) activated
    (e) enhanced
    Ans: ( c ) captured

    83. (a) communities
    (b) ways
    (c) abnormalities
    (d) destiny
    (e) groups
    Ans: ( d ) destiny

    84. (a) bravado
    (b) interest
    (c) peace
    (d) wealth
    (e) faith
    Ans: ( b ) interest

    85. (a) appalling
    (b) crushing
    (c) moistening
    (d) promoting
    (e) overwhelming
    Ans: ( e ) overwhelming

    86. (a) apprehension
    (b) risk
    (c) problem
    (d) game
    (e) destiny
    Ans: ( e ) destiny

    87. (a) deliberation
    (b) absorption
    (c) insight
    (d) hesitation
    (e) reluctance
    Ans: ( a ) deliberation

    88. (a) nature
    (b) equivalent
    (c) picture
    (d) opposite
    (e) replica
    Ans: ( d ) opposite

    89. (a) prediction
    (b) concentration
    (c) manipulation
    (d) attack
    (e) fortune
    Ans: ( b ) concentration

    90. (a) devastation
    (b) anxiety
    (c) impeachment
    (d) nuisance
    (e) threat
    Ans: ( e ) threat

    Directions (Qs. 91?95) : Read each sentence to find out
    whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if
    any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of
    that part is the answer. If there is not error, the answer
    is ?E?. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
    91. If your don?t (a) / understand any of these words (b) /
    you could (c) / always refer a dictionary. (d) / No error (e)
    Ans: ( e )

    92. Tea is so hot (a) / that she (b) / can (c) / take it.
    (d) / No error (e)
    Ans: ( a )

    93. The teacher said (a) / that the earth (b) / moves round
    (c) / the sun. (d) / No error (e)
    Ans: ( e )

    94. He told to me (a) / that he (b) / was going away (c) /
    the next day. (d) / No error (e)
    Ans: ( b )

    95. The lecturer says (a) / that Solomon won the respect (b)
    / of all races and (c) / classes by his justice. (d) / No
    error (e)
    Ans: ( e )

    Directions (Qs. 96?100) : In each of the following
    questions, select the most appropriate word from among the
    five words given below the sentence to fill in the blanks in
    the sentence so as to complete it meaningfully.
    96. Sunil was ???asleep and could not be easily awakened.
    (a) high
    (b) fast
    (c) severe
    (d) total
    (e) has
    Ans: ( b ) fast

    97. The vehicle did not come to a sudden halt since he
    braked ???
    (a) immediately
    (b) silently
    (c) gently
    (d) completely
    (e) detected
    Ans: ( c ) gently

    98. I saw him going escorted ??? two policemen.
    (a) with
    (b) against
    (c) by
    (d) on
    (e) for
    Ans: ( c ) by

    99. Madhav is a sick man and has to be taken to the doctor ???
    (a) usually
    (b) timely
    (c) seldom
    (d) frequently
    (e) avoided
    Ans: ( d ) frequently

    100. The child was left in the servants ???
    (a) care
    (b) duty
    (c) work
    (d) help
    (e) innocence
    Ans: ( a ) care

    Directions (Qs. 101?105) : Rearrange the following six
    sentences I, II, III, IV, V and VI in proper sequence so as
    to form a meaningful paragraph. Then answer the questions
    given below them.
    I. We were interested by contrast in understanding what
    lessons actual teams and non-teams had for others to choose
    to struggle with change and performance.
    II. Still, we suspected that most of these focused on
    persuading readers that ?terms are important?.
    III. After all we thought teams are a well-known subject and
    there must be a thousand books on the subject already.
    IV. By going down this path we hope to discover something to
    say that was different from most books on the subject.
    V. We approached the idea of a book on teams cautiously.
    VI. Alternatively they focused on providing you to advise on
    building teams as an objective in it self.
    101. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence?
    (a) I
    (b) II
    (c) VI
    (d) III
    (e) IV
    Ans: ( d ) III

    102. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence ?
    (a) V
    (b) I
    (c) II
    (d) III
    (e) IV
    Ans: ( a ) V

    103. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence ?
    (a) V
    (b) III
    (c) II
    (d) VI
    (e) IV
    Ans: ( c ) II

    104. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence ?
    (a) III
    (b) IV
    (c) II
    (d) VI
    (e) I
    Ans: ( e ) I

    105. Which of the following will be the LAST sentence ?
    (a) III
    (b) IV
    (c) V
    (d) VI
    (e) II
    Ans: ( b ) IV

    Directions (Qs. 106?110) : In each sentence below four
    words have been printed in bold type, which are numbered
    (A), (B), (C), (D). One of these words may be either
    wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the
    sentence. The number of that word is the answer. If all
    the four words are spelt correctly, the answer is (E), i.e.,
    all correct.
    106. He had experienced (a) / a purposefully (b) /
    discussion (c) / on topics of our interest. (d) / All
    correct (e)
    Ans: ( b )

    107. To solve a (a) / problem, one needs to have (b) /
    intelligent and firm (c) / determination. (d) / All correct (e)
    Ans: ( c )

    108. Many legends (a) / superstions endow the moon with (b)
    / a beauty and mistery which will (c) / linger for countless
    years. (d) / All correct (e)
    Ans: ( c )

    109. People in our country are distressed (a) / by the spate
    of strikes, an almost (b) / perpetual go-slow and (c) /
    increadibly low productivity. (d) / All correct (e)
    Ans: ( d )

    110. The faces of the (a) / twins were so (b) / identical
    that we could not (c) / differentiate between them. (d) /
    All correct (e)
    Ans: ( c )

    Directions (Qs. 111?115) : In each of the following
    questions five words are given, which are numbered I, II,
    III, IV and V. By using all the five words, each only once,
    you have to frame a meaningful and grammatically correct
    sentence. The correct order of the words is the answer.
    Choose from the five alternatives the one having the correct
    order of words and mark it as your answer on the answer sheet.
    111. I. interested II. in III. children
    IV. are V. games
    (a) III, IV, I, II, V
    (b) V, IV, I, II, III
    (c) III, IV, V, I, II
    (d) III, V, IV, I, II
    (e) III, IV, II, V, I
    Ans: ( a ) III, IV, I, II, V

    112. I. was II. to III. he
    VI. go V. ready
    (a) III, I, II, IV, V
    (b) I, III, IV, II, V
    (c) III, IV, II, V, I
    (d) I, II, IV, III, V
    (e) III, I, V, II, IV
    Ans: ( e ) III, I, V, II, IV

    113. I. found II. lost III. his
    IV. book V. we
    (a) V, II, III, I, IV
    (b) III, IV, II, V, I
    (c) V, I, III, II, IV
    (d) V, II, III, IV, I
    (e) III, IV, V, II, I
    Ans: ( c ) V, I, III, II, IV

    114. I. of II. he III. proud
    IV. me V. was
    (a) V, II, IV, I, III
    (b) II, V, IV, I, III
    (c) IV, V, III, I, II
    (d) II, V, III, I, IV
    (e) II, III, V, I, IV
    Ans: ( d ) II, III, V, I, IV

    115. I. decision II. happy III. made
    IV. your V. me
    (a) IV, III, V, II, I
    (b) IV, I, III, V, II
    (c) II, I, III, V, IV
    (d) IV, I, V, III, II
    (e) II, III, V, IV, I
    Ans: ( b ) IV, I, III, V, II

    Directions (Qs. 116?120) : In the following questions, five
    words are given out of which only one is mis-spelt. Find
    that mis-spelt word and indicate it in the Answer Sheet.
    116. (a) combination
    (b) exageration
    (c) hallucination
    (d) admonition
    (e) clinical
    Ans: ( b ) exageration

    117. (a) sacrosanct
    (b) sacrelege
    (c) sacred
    (d) sacrament
    (e) segment
    Ans: ( b ) sacrelege

    118. (a) allitration
    (b) allowance
    (c) almighty
    (d) almanac
    (e) illicit
    Ans: ( a ) allitration

    119. (a) idiosyncrasy
    (b) idealise
    (c) idiosy
    (d) ideology
    (e) ieonoclass
    Ans: ( c ) idiosy

    120. (a) jaundise
    (b) jasmine
    (c) jevelin
    (d) jarving
    (e) judgement
    Ans: ( a ) jaundise

    Directions (Qs. 121?130) : Read the following passage
    carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
    words/phrases in the passage are printed in bold to help you
    locate them while answering some of the questions.
    Nature is an infinite source of beauty. Sunrise and
    sunset, mountains and rivers, lakes and glaciers, forests
    and fields provide joy and bliss to the human mind and heart
    for hours together. Everything in nature is splendid and
    divine. Everyday and every season of the year has a
    peculiar beauty to unfold. Only one should have eyes to
    behold it and a heart to feel it like the English poet
    William Wordsworth who after seeing daffodils said: ?And
    then my heart with pleasure fills and dances with the
    Nature is a great teacher. The early man was thrilled with
    beauty and wonders of nature. The Aryans worshipped nature.
    One can learn the lessons in the vast school of nature.
    Unfortunately the strife, the stress and the tension of
    modern life have made people immune to beauties of nature.
    Their life is so full of care that they have no time to
    stand and stare. They cannot enjoy the beauty of lowing
    rivers, swinging trees, flying birds and majestic mountains
    and hills. There is however, a cry to go back to village
    from the concrete and artificial jungle of cities. Hence
    the town planners of today pay special attention to provide
    enough number of natural scenic spots in town planning. To
    develop a balanced personality, one needs to have a healthy
    attitude which can make us appreciate and enjoy the beauty
    of nature.
    There is other balm to soothe our tired soul and listless
    mind than the infinite nature all around us. We should
    enjoy it fully to lead a balanced and harmonious life, full
    of peace and tranquility.
    121. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as
    the word care as used in the passage ?
    (a) grief
    (b) want
    (c) needs
    (d) pleasure
    (e) prejudices
    Ans: ( a ) grief

    122. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of
    the word unfold as used in the passage.
    (a) declare
    (b) conceal
    (c) describe
    (d) perpetuate
    (e) evolve
    Ans: ( b ) conceal

    123. Which of the following statements is not made in the
    passage about Nature?
    (a) Nature is an infinite source of beauty
    (b) Everything in nature is splendid and divine
    (c) Nature is a great teacher
    (d) The Aryans worshipped Nature
    (e) The early man was scared of Nature
    Ans: ( e ) The early man was scared of Nature

    124. What is needed to develop balanced personality?
    (a) interpersonal skills
    (b) reading poetry
    (c) healthy attitude
    (d) going back to villages
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( c ) healthy attitude

    125. Why do people not enjoy the beauty of Nature ?
    (a) They are running after material pleasures
    (b) They do not consider nature as balm to soothe their
    fired minds
    (c) Their life is full of worries and tensions
    (d) They are afraid of nature
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( c ) Their life is full of worries and tensions

    126. What should we do to enjoy tranquil life ?
    (a) Get totally immersed in our daily routine
    (b) Believe that nature is infinite source of beauty
    (c) Lead a disciplined and dedicated life
    (d) Enjoy the nature around us
    (e) Form a habit of daily physical exercise
    Ans: ( d ) Enjoy the nature around us

    127. What are the town planners doing today?
    (a) Providing facilities for enjoying nature
    (b) Establishing balance between concrete and artificial
    jungle of cities
    (c) Supporting the cry to go back to villages
    (d) Making efforts to inculcate healthy attitude among people
    (e) None of these
    Ans: ( a ) Providing facilities for enjoying nature

    128. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of
    the word listless as used in the passage
    (a) active
    (b) progressive
    (c) backward
    (d) hidden
    (e) impure
    Ans: ( a ) active

    129. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of
    the word soothe as used in the passage ?
    (a) stabilize
    (b) excite
    (c) propagate
    (d) nature
    (e) strengthen
    Ans: ( b ) excite

    130. According to the author of the passage, Nature
    (a) is the ultimate salvation of man
    (b) is the creator of this universe
    (c) brings uniformity in all seasons
    (d) maintains homeostasis in human beings
    (e) is abundantly glorious and divine
    Ans: ( e ) is abundantly glorious and divine

    IBPS RRB Regional Rural Banks Economy, Banking & Marketing Current Affairs Knowledg Papers

    IBPS RRB Regional Rural Banks Model Papers for Practice

    Practice Set to test Economy, Banking & Marketing Current Affairs Knowledge for RRB
    Which company joined the United Nations' Clean Development Mission (CDM) programme, which aims to reduce CO2 emissions from its operations?
    a.    IBM

    b.    Maruti Suzuki India
    c.    RIL

    d.    BHEL
    Answer: (b)
    Name India’s State-run iron ore miner who agreed to team up with Australia's Minemakers Ltd to develop a phosphate mine in Wonarah in northern Australia.
    a.    Bihar Sponge Iron Ltd

    b.    Essel Mining & Industries
    c.    NMDC

    d.    IISCO
    Answer: (c)
    Which of the following banks announced on 20 June 2011 to buy the Royal Bank of Canada's (RBC) retail banking subsidiary for 3.45 billion US dollars?

    a. Asian Development Bank
    b. The PNC of US

    c. World Bank
    d. The Reserve bank of India
    Answer: (b)
    Which Company announced to build India’s first and largest integrated facility for fabrication of multi crystalline silicon wafers and processing of solar photovoltaic cells?

    a. Aviva Life Insurance
    b. NIIT

    c. Birla Surya

    d. TATA
    Answer: (c)
    What is the full form of IRFC?

    a. Indian Railway Facilitating Centre
    b. Indian Railway Finance Corporation

    c. Indian Railway Cops Force
    d. None of the above

    Answer: (b)
    IFC planned to help Jain Irrigation system in India to set up Sustainable Agro-Commercial Finance Limited. What is the intention behind this planning?

    a. To provide irrigation facility to every nook and corner of India for cultivation
    b. To provide irrigation facility under the circumstances of drought

    c. To modernize all techniques used in irrigation
    d. To benefit farmers with limited access to credit

    Answer: (d)
    Who of the following was appointed as the Director (Finance) of Navratna Public Sector engineering and manufacturing enterprise, Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd (BHEL)?
    a. P. K. Goyal

    b. P.K. Bajpai
    c. Bhaswar Mukherjee

    d. N.S. Kannan
    Answer: (b)
    Which of the following PSUs announced on 18 July 2011, the merger of Maharashtra Elektrosmelt (MEL) with itself?
    a.    BHEL

    b.    SAIL

    c.    HPCL

    d.    IOC
    Answer: (b)
    Government of India on 19 July 2011 appointed Usha Ananthasubramanian, former general manager of Bank of Baroda (BoB) as executive director of which public sector lender?
    a.    Central Bank of India

    b.   Punjab National Bank
    c.    United Bank of India

    d.   Gramin Bank
    Answer: (b)
    Name the public sector lender that selected Metlife as its partner for a proposed foray into the life insurance segment.

    a.    Syndicate Bank
    b.    Punjab National Bank
    c.    Corporation Bank

    d.    United Bank of India
    Answer: (b)

    Name the sports channel that acquired the exclusive broadcast rights for Euro 2012 in the Indian
    subcontinent (India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan and Maldives) for Rs 100 crore?

    a.    ESPN
    b.    DD Sports
    c.    Neo Sports

    d.    Ten Sports
    Answer: (c)

    Who took charge as Chairman of the Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd, Visakhapatnam steel plant (RINL-VSP) on
    31 July 2011?

    a.    A.P. Choudhary

    b.    P.K. Bishnoi

    c.    N.K Mishra
    d.    Binayak Mishra
    Answer: (a)
    Which Indian auto-maker launched the new version of its premium hatchback, the Vista on 23 August

    a.    Mahindra & Mahindra
    b.    Tata Motors

    c.    Maruti
    d.    Bajaj Auto
    Answer: (b)
    Silicon Valley legend Steve Jobs resigned as chief executive of Apple Inc on 24 August 2011. In which year was Apple founded?
    a.    1970

    b.    1973

    c.    1975

    d.    1976

    Answer: (d)

    How many Indian companies were ranked among the top 200 Asia-Pacific corporations in Forbes Asia's
    'Best Under a Billion' list for 2011 released on 31 August 2011?

    a.    65

    b.    35

    c.    23

    d.    14
    Answer: (b)

    Which company signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with Japan-based Nippon Life
    Insurance for collaboration opportunities, including strategic partnership, across all financial services businesses?
    a.    Reliance Capital
    b.    Life Insurance Corporation
    c.    Max New York Life Insurance

    d.    Bharti AXA Life Insurance
    Answer: (a)
    Which of the following banks set up two loan processing centres for the small and medium enterprise (SME) segment on a pilot basis in Bangalore & in New Delhi in September 2011?

    a.    Corp Bank
    b.    United Bank of India
    c.    Syndicate Bank

    d.    Bank of Baroda
    Answer: (c)
    Which PSU topped the list by clinching five awards including the best financial performance award in Maharatna and Navaratna category among the Public Sector Enterprises in September 2011?

    a.    BHEL
    b.    ONGC

    c.    NTPC
    d.    Indian Oil
    Answer: (b)
    Which Indian PSU bank in tune with its plans to expand its retail division in the UK entered the mortgage market in the country for the first time?

    a.    Punjab National Bank
    b.    Oriental Bank of Commerce

    c.    State bank of India

    d.    Indian Overseas Bank

    Answer: (c)

    Name the chairman and managing director of Madison World, who was unanimously elected as
    chairman of the Audit Bureau of Circulations (ABC), the body that monitors sales of publications, for the year 2011-12.

    a.    T Venkattram Reddy
    b.    Aritra Sarkar

    c.    Madhukar Kamath
    d.    Sam Balsara

    Answer: (d)
    Which Indian mining company in India got the Finance Ministry’s permission to acquire stakes in overseas unlisted firms?

    a.    Bharat Gold Mines Limited
    b.    Neyveli Lignite Corporation

    c.    Sesa Goa
    d.    Coal India Ltd

    Answer: (d)
    Which of the following companies entered into a partnership with the department of information technology to provide rural population socially oriented investment options?
    a.    UTI Infrastructure Technology
    b.    L&T Infrastructure

    c.    ICICI Mutual Fund

    d.    RIL
    Answer: (a)
    Which Indian mining company in India got the Finance Ministry’s permission to acquire stakes in overseas unlisted firms?

    a.    Bharat Gold Mines Limited

    b.    Neyveli Lignite Corporation
    c.    Sesa Goa
    d.    Coal India Ltd

    Answer: (d)
    Which of the following companies entered into a partnership with the department of information technology to provide rural population socially oriented investment options?
    a.    UTI Infrastructure Technology

    b.    L&T Infrastructure
    c.    ICICI Mutual Fund
    d.    RIL

    Answer: (a)
    Which of the following public sector banks in November 2011 froze its lending to the power sector?

    a.    State Bank of India
    b.    Allahabad Bank

    c.    Punjab National Bank
    d.    United Bank of India

    Answer: (b)
    Which private bank for the first time became the most valuable lender in the country overtaking the 204-year-old State Bank of India in market capitalization on 15 November 2011?
    a.    ICICI

    b.    HDFC
    c.    HSBC
    d.    ABN Amro

    Answer: (b)
    Who did General Motors appoint on 15 November 2011 as president and MD of India operations with effect from 1 January 2012?

    a.    Tim Lee

    b.    Karl Slym
    c.    Chi Len
    d.    Lowell Paddock

    Answer: (d)
    Who was on 23 November 2011 chosen to succeed Tata group chairman Ratan Tata as the group’s new chairman in 2012 when Ratan Tata formlly retires?
    a.    Cyrus P. Mistry

    b.    Noel Tata
    c.    N Chandrasekaran
    d.    R Gopalakrishnan

    Answer: (a)
    Which PSU bank in November 2011 decided to abolish pre-payment charges on home loans, giving some succour to borrowers who want to foreclose their accounts?
    a.    Punjab National Bank

    b.    Bank of India
    c.    Corp Bank

    d.    State Bank of India
    Answer: (d)
    Reserve Bank of India (RBI) approved the restructuring of an airline's working capital loan liability of Rs 22000 crore. Name the airline.
    a.    Air India

    b.    Kingfisher
    c.    Indigo

    d.    SpiceJet
    Answer: (a)

    Which Hyderabad-based drug discovery research and development organisationon 28 November 2011 entered into an alliance with the Moulder Centre for Drug Discovery Research at Temple University,

    a.    Ranbaxy
    b.    Cipla
    c.    GVK Biosciences (GVK BIO)

    d.    Sanofi-Aventis
    Answer: (c)
    Which Power distribution company on 5 December 2011 announced change of its name to Tata Power Delhi Distribution Limited?

    a.    North Delhi Power Limited (NDPL)
    b.    Adani Power
    c.    Lanco Infratech

    d.    CLP Power
    Answer: (a)
    Which bank signed a memorandum of understanding with Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) to use the National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) facility  to facilitate electronic funds transfer of policy payments to policyholders?
    a.    IDBI

    b.    Corp Bank
    c.    Indian Overseas Bank

    d.    Dhanlaxmi Bank
    Answer: (d)
    Which PSU lender decided to aggressively market its gold loan scheme for farmers to prevent defaults after the agriculture sector witnessed a sharp spike in bad debt in the past one year?
    a.    Union Bank

    b.    United Bank of India
    c.    Industrial Development Bank of India

    d.    State Bank of India

    Answer: (d)
    Who did the Central Government appoint as Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of Andhra Bank?
    a.    B. A. Prabhakar

    b.    O. P. Bhatt
    c.    Pratip Chaudhuri

    d.    S. Vishvanathan
    Answer: (a)
    The directorate general of hydrocarbons (DGH), the technical arm of the oil ministry approved which company’s proposal to commence production from Bhagyam, the second-largest oil field in the
    Rajasthan block?
    a.    Essar Oil

    b.    ONGC
    c.    Cairn India
    d.    Indian Oil

    Answer: (c)
    Which of India's leading commodity bourses on 20 December 2011 became the world's fifth-largest commodity futures exchange?
    a.    National Multi Commodity Exchange of India

    b.    Bharat Diamond Bourse
    c.    Multi Commodity Exchange
    d.    Bombay Stock Exchange

    Answer: (d)
    Name the state-run Mumbai-headquartered bank which on 29 December 2011 surprised the market by cutting its base rate, the minimum lending rate, by 10 basis points, thereby becoming the first banker this year to do so when others are waiting for a signal from the central bank.

    a. State Bank of India

    b. Union Bank

    c. United Bank of India
    d. Allahabad Bank
    Answer: (b)
    Which PSU lender called off its plans to set up a joint venture with Visa Inc and Elavon Inc to enter the merchant acquiring business over differences on sharing technology?

    a.    Union Bank
    b.    State Bank of India

    c.    Syndicate Bank
    d.    Corp Bank
    Answer: (b)
    The Board of Approval (BoA) under the Commerce Ministry on 24 January 2012 approved the proposal
    of this company to set up a special economic zone (SEZ) at Indore in Madhya Pradesh. Identify the
    a.    Reliance Industries

    b.    Tata Consultancy Services (TCS)
    c.    Hero Motors

    d.    Infosys
    Answer: (b)
    Name the world’s largest biotechnology company which agreed to buy Micromet in a $1.16 billion deal to gain an experimental leukemia drug.
    a.    Celgene Drug

    b.    B B Biotech

    c.    Dechert
    d.    Amgen
    Answer: (d)

    Which channel developed a 52-week special India: Wild Encounters to focuss on India's enchanting wildlife s well as take viewers on an exploration spree ?

    a.    Discovery India
    b.    Animal Planet

    c.    Sony
    d.    National Gepgraphy

    Answer: (b)
    Which of the following banks filed a criminal complaint against Sterling Biotech, and its six directors, for allegedly defaulting on repayments on credit facilities provided by the public sector lender?
    a.    State Bank of Travancore

    b.    State Bank of Mysore
    c.    State Bank of Patiala

    d.    State Bank of Indore
    Answer: (b)
    Which of the following Indian Telecom company on 16 February 2012 got the RBI nod for FCCB redemption?
    (a).    Reliance Telecom

    (b).    Uninor
    (c).    Airtel

    (d).    Vodafone
    Answer: (a)
    World’s largest two wheeler manufacturer Hero MotoCorp on 22 February 2012 inked a pact with Erik Buell Racing [EBR]. EBR is an

    (a)    USA based company
    (b)    UAE based company
    (c)    Argentina based company

    (d)    UK based company

    Answer: (a)
    Consider the following statements and using the code given below identify the personality with whom these statements are associated
    1.    He has recently joined the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited as its Chairman

    2.    He is one of the few outsiders to head HAL
    3.    He started his career with ONGC in 1976

    4.    He has also served as the head of Pawan Hans Limited
    (a)    RK Sharma

    (b)    RK Tyagi
    (c)    AM Naik
    (d)    Pratip Chaudhury

    Answer: (b)
    Which of the following public sector bank has appointed Madhukant Girdharlal Sanghvi as its new Chairman
    (a)    Bank of Baroda

    (b)    Allahabad Bank
    (c)    State Bank of Maharashtra

    (d)    Syndicate Bank
    Answer: (d)

    Which of the following banks on 20 March 2012, launched its new card product named Sapphiro
    (a)    HDFC

    (b)    State Bank of India
    (c)    Kotak Mahindra
    (d)    ICICI

    Answer: (a)
    Which of the following nationalized bank on 1 April 2012 appointed D Sarkar as chairman and Managing

    (a)    Indian Bank

    (b)    Allahabad Bank
    (c)    Union Bank of India
    (d)    Canara Bank

    Answer: (c)
    Which one of the following statements is wrong

    (a)    NTPC has successfully completed the automation package for the Simhadri Stage-II
    (b)    It is NTPC's first coastal-based coal-fired thermal power project

    (c)    The super thermal power project located near Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh
    (d)    NTPC is a private energy company, based in China

    Answer: (d)
    Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 4 May 2012 raised the interest rate ceiling on NRI deposits in foreign currencies by up to what percent?

    a.    1%

    b.    2.5%

    c.    3.3%

    d.    3%

    Answer: (d)
    Union minister of labour and employment Mallikarjun Kharge inaugurated the E-Challan and Receipt
    (ECR) facility on 1 May 2012. Which of the following statements related to the statement is not true?
    1.    E-Challan and Receipt (ECR) facility was inaugurated to bring transparency and accessibility for
    employers in depositing monthly Employees’ Provident Fund or EPF contributions of their workers
    2.    Employers under the ECR service would have to register their organisations online and generate challans for making monthly deposits. They can use these challan for either electronically or physically depositing the Provident Fund or PF contributions to the bank.
    3.    After the bank confirms the deposit, the concerned regional office’s system would be automatically notified and individual members’ accounts would get updated
    4.    the need of annual accounts preparation at the end of the will continue to prevail under this system

    a.    1 & 2

    b.    Only 2
    c.    Only 4

    d.    2 & 3
    Answer: c
    Union Government decided on 1 million Cap on External Commercial Borrowing for which of the following sectors?
    a.    Handicraft & Small Industries sector

    b.    Power sector
    c.    Aviation sector
    d.    Insurance sector

    Answer: (c)
    Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 17 April 2012 instructed commercial banks to reduce their exposure to gold loan companies to what per cent of their capital funds from the existing 10%?

    a.    9%

    b.    8.3%

    c.    4.1%

    d.    7.5%
    Answer: (d)
    Commerce Secretary on 19 April 2012 announced that India surpassed the export target of $300 billion for 2011-12. However due to surging imports India recorded the highest ever trade deficit. What was the trade deficit recorded for the 2011-12?

    a.    $184.9 billion

    b.    $150 billion

    c.    4167.4 billion

    d.    $142 billion
    Answer: (a)

    International Monetary Fund (IMF) in its World Economic Outlook (WEO), released ahead of the IMF-
    World Bank Spring Meetings, marginally lowered India’s economic growth forecast to what per cent in

    a.    4%

    b.    3.5%

    c.    6.9%

    d.    7.3%
    Answer: (c)

    Union government on 18 April 2012 decided to liberalise the external commercial borrowing (ECB)
    norms for the power sector. Power sector companies will now be able to use up to what per cent of ECB loans to refinance their rupee debt?

    a.    35%

    b.    40%

    c.    53%

    d.    27%
    Answer: (b)
    Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) on 12 April 2012 also approved an ad-valorem regime for calculating royalty for which of the following?
    a.    Coal & Iron ore

    b.    Coal & Lignite
    c.    Lignite & Copper

    d.    Lignite & Zinc
    Answer: (b)
    Union government on 12 April 2012 approved bailout package for Air India. What was the bailout amount cleared by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs?
    a.    Rs 30000 crore

    b.    Rs 25000 crore
    c.    Rs 43000 crore

    d.    Rs 27000 crore

    Answer: (a)
    The Union Cabinet on 12 April 2012 approved the extension of funding support for implementing which
    of the following schemes under the New Pension System (NPS) from three years to five years for all
    a.    Trade related Entrepreneurship Assistance and Development (TREAD) Scheme

    b.    Gold Credit Pass Book Scheme
    c.    Swayamsidha (IWEP)

    d.    Swavalamban Scheme
    Answer: (d)
    Reserve Bank of India on 3 April 2012 tightened the reporting requirements of the banks to monitor gold import. Consider the statements given below and which of the following is true?
    1.    As per the directions issued, banks will have to submit a monthly statement informing the central bank about the quantity of gold imported as well as the mode of payment adopted
    2.    The directive was issued amidst concerns of huge outflow of foreign exchange on import of gold which is believed to be putting pressure on the India's current account deficit (CAD).
    a.    Only 1

    b.    Only 2
    c.    Both 1 & 2

    d.    None of the above
    Answer: (c)

    Following RBI's decision to hike bank rate, the Food Ministry increased the interest rate on loans
    provided to sugar factories from the Sugar Development Fund (SDF) to what per cent from the earlier 4% from 14 February 2012?
    a.    7%

    b.    7.5%

    c.    8%

    d.    8.8%

    Answer: (b)

    Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 3 April 2012 released 'Quarterly Statistics on Deposits and Credit of
    Scheduled Commercial Banks, September 2011. Which of the following facts are not true with respect to the mentioned statement?
    1.    The data included in the release were based on Basic Statistical Return (BSR)-10 received from all scheduled commercial banks (excluding RRBs)
    2.    The number of banked centres of Scheduled Commercial banks stood at 35,435. 27,913 of these centres were single office centres and 68 centres had 100 or more bank offices

    3.    State Bank of India and its Associates accounted for 21.8 per cent of the aggregate deposits
    4.    the credit-deposit (C-D) ratio of All Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) at all India level as on 30 September 2011 stood at 74.4 per cent
    a.    Only 1

    b.    2 & 3
    c.    Only 4

    d.    3 & 4
    Answer: (a)
    Union government on 23 March 2012 reduced the import tariff value of which metal from USD 573 per
    10 grams to USD 530 per 10 grams?
    a.    Gold

    b.    Silver
    c.    Copper
    d.    Iron

    Answer: (a)
    Union Power Ministry did not approve of the gas price pooling mechanism within the power sector as proposed by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. With reference to the statement which of the following facts are not true?
    2.   The Power Ministry deemed the pooling price mechanism with 7 mmscmd of additional RLNG to be non-workable

    3.    As per the Power Ministry the pool proposed to be formed could only envisage 20-25 per cent of RLNG with 75-80 per cent of domestic gas
    4.    Petroleum Ministry specifically stated that no new power plants will be considered for gas allocation till 2019-20
    5.    Until 2013-14, only around 7 mmscmd of RLNG is expected to be imported due to infrastructure constraints

    a.    Only 1

    b.    2 & 3
    c.    Only 3
    d.    Only 2

    Answer: (c)
    Union government raised interest rates on post office-operated small savings like Monthly Income Scheme (MIS) and Public Provident Fund (PPF) by what per cent in March 2012?

    a.    O.5%

    b.    1.1%
    c.    O.75%

    d.    1.75%

    Answer: (a)
    Finance ministry concerned over the steep rise in bad loans, set up a committee to suggest sectorspecific mechanisms to address rising issue. With respect to the statement which of the following statement is not true?
    1.    The ministry decided to set up the committee after rating agency Moody’s downgraded the Union
    Bank of India one notch on 19 March 2012 due to its high level of troubled assets and low provisions for
    2.    The committee will have representation from the finance ministry, the Reserve Bank of India and some banks.
    3.    Finance Minister in Budget 2012-13 allowed $1-billion external commercial borrowing (ECB) for the airline industry for one year, and allowed foreign debt to part-finance rupee debt taken by power
    companies and also for affordable housing.

    4.    Rise in bad loans affected farm sector lending as well. In November 2010, the share of farm loans was 13.10%, and dropped to 9.18% in November 2011

    a.    1 & 3
    b.    Only 3

    c.    Only 4
    d.    Only 1

    Answer: (c)
    Union Railway Minister Mukul Roy rolled back the railway fare hike as proposed by Dinesh Trivedi in the first Union Rail Budget 2012-13 presented on 14 March 2012. Which of the following statement is not true with respect to the roll back?

    1.    Roy withdrew the hike for second class suburban and non-suburban, and sleeper class travel fare by
    2 paise, 3 paise and 5 paise per km
    2.    All railway reform measures suggested by Trivedi such as setting up of an independent tariff
    regulator, restructuring of Railway Board on professional lines, and creation of posts of Member PPP and Member Safety was also ignored
    3.    Roy's budget paved the way for the cash-strapped railways to earn a mere Rs 450 crore from increased passenger fares instead of Rs 1000 crore that Trivedi budgeted for

    4.    Following the rollback proposed by Roy the railways can now generate only Rs 1000 crore more.

    a.    2 & 4
    b.    Only 3

    c.    1 & 4
    d.    Only 4

    Answer: (b)
    The Union Railway Budget 2012-13 was presented in the Lok Sabha on 14 March 2012 by Union Railway Minister Dinesh Trivedi. Which of the following facts related to the budget are not true?
    1.    The total union budget outlay for 2012-13 stood at Rs 60100 crore.
    2.    The fares were raised in the budget. The fares were raised 5 paise per km for suburban and ordinary second class. Fares for mail express second class was raised by only 2 paise per km

    3.    Union Railway budget 2012-13 proposed to allocate about Rs 4410 crore to capacity augmentation
    4.    The Union railway proposed to electrify 6500 route kilometers during the 12th Plan period. This would include electrification of Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla line and hence provide pollution free traction to the pristine Kashmir Valley

    a.    3 & 5

    b.    Only 4

    c.    Only 2

    d.    3 & 4

    Answer: (c)

    The union government decided to boost public spending in the health sector to what per cent of GDP
    from the current 1.4 per cent over five years (12th Five Year Plan period begining 2012)?

    a.    2.5%

    b.    3%

    c.    3.33%

    d.    4.5%
    Answer: (a)
    Reserve Bank of India (RBI) panel on priority sector lending on 21 February 2012 proposed increment in
    the target (priority sector) for foreign banks to what per cent of net bank credit from the current level of
    32 per cent with sub-targets of 15 per cent for exports and 15 per cent for the MSE sector?

    a.    53%

    b.    40%

    c.    46%

    d.    39%
    Answer: (b)
    Cabinet Committee for Economic Affairs approved the National Dairy Development Board’s ambitious National Dairy Plan for the 12th Five-Year Plan to be initiated in 2012. Which of the following facts with regard to the statement is not true?

    2.   The project is aimed at boosting milk production using scientific breeding and feeding programmes covering about 2.7 million milch animals in 40000 villages
    3.   According to  the National Dairy Development Board, the demand for milk is likely to be about 150 million tonne by 2016-17 and 200-210 million tonne by 2021-22. India was the third largest milk
    producing nation in 2010-11 with a production of 100.2 million tonne.
    4.  Cooperatives currently procure about 16% of the national marketable milk surplus covering around 21% of the country’s villages and 18% of rural milk producing households
    5.  The cooperative sector is needed to achieve a procurement share of at least 20% of the marketable milk surplus by 2016-17 so as to retain an overall 50% share of the marketable surplus handled by the organised sector

    a.    1 & 3
    b.    Only 3
    c.    Only 2

    d.    3 & 4
    Answer: (c)

    Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 14 February 2012, issued the ‘Draft Circular for Deployment of White
    Label Automated Teller Machines (WLAs) from non-bank entities. Which of the following facts related to this statement is/are not true?
    1.    The WLA operator can choose the location of the WLA. However, it will have to adhere to annual
    targets and the ratio of WLA between Tier I &II and Tier III-VI centres that may be stipulated by the RBI.
    2.    Non-bank entities proposing to set up WLAs have to apply to the RBI seeking authorisation under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act 2007
    3.    The non-banking entities should have a minimum net worth of Rs. 1000 crore at the time of making the application and on a continuing basis after issue of the requisite authorisation.
    4.    Being non-bank owned ATMs, the guidelines on five free transactions in a month for using other bank ATMs will not be applicable for transactions made on the WLAs.
    5.    The WLA operator will have to declare one Sponsor Bank, which will serve as the Settlement Bank for the settlement of all the service transactions at the WLAs.

    a.    2 & 5
    b.    Only 1

    c.    Only 3

    d.    Only 5

    Answer: (c)